Hi there,
I have been with my girlfriend for exactly 2 years, we regularly partake in unprotected sex, oral and vaginal.
Today, she has informed me she has tested positive for chlamydia. When we first got together back in 2015, she was tested then and claimed to be negative for everything. Its only recently she had another test done at a private clinic and tested positive for chlamydia.
Approximately, 8 years ago, I engaged in unprotected anal, vaginal and oral sex with a sex worker within a brothel in the Czech Republic. Once I returned to the UK, I was tested 6 weeks and 12 weeks (84 days). I was negative for all STD's and HIV. I was tested for free via a NHS Gum Clinic within the UK.
Back in 2014, I engaged in unprotected oral sex, receiving oral from a verified white British escort. She informed me she is regularly tested for all STD's due to the nature of her work. I NEVER got tested after this encounter as I believed oral carried a little to no risk for STD's.
Apart from these two encounters I have only ever been sexual with my current partner.
My questions are:
1) Despite negative STD's and HIV tests back in 2009 at 6 weeks and 12. Is there any way I have been infected all this time and the tests done at the time failed to pick up any infection?
2) Can you obtain Chlamydia from receiving oral sex?
3) Could I have HIV/Chlamydia and still be healthy after 7 years with no symptoms?
4) I plan to get tested for Chlamydia however will HIV testing be necessary after a 3 month negative back in 2009?
My girlfriend has had two previous partners in the past and she has informed me she has always been safe. Having said that, her partners were long term. My encounters have been single encounters, one back in 2009 and one in 2014.
Any answers would be massively appreciated right now, I feel absolutely confused.
Kind regards,
Jay.