We don't get into high and low risk here. Because if we ever say low risk, this might give the impression that since it is low, then the behavior is excusable and worth doing again. And this could lead to HIV being transmitted. So we say a risk is a risk and it only takes 1 time.
Of course the less time the less potential for transmission, but it can take 1 time and 1 minute.
OK, one more follow up. I understand that there is definite risk, but is there definite HIGH risk? Let's say that the guy is definitely HIV+. Would the timing (max of a minute) be on my side for possible non-transmission/lower risk? Am I reaching on this....? :X
An antibody test is the only approved diagnostic test and needs to be done at 3 months for confidence. a 6-8 week test would be a very good indication.
We don't speak about symptoms because they are general and non-specific, and most people don't even get symptoms.
It was unprotected. Does anyone know if the swollen glands would be VERY noticeable? Or if even slightly swollen could indicate hiv? Also, I can't test where I live outside the States. Will a PCR test at 4 weeks be reliable? Thanks.
If this sex was unprotected then it is a risk and you should test at 3 months post exposure. If it was protected sex then you did not have a risk.