Aa
No Condom!!!!
I receently (October 12th) had unprotected vaginal sex with a sex worker in Dubai UAE, twice during the night. I dont know what I was thinking at the time, must have lost my mind. Anyhow, I asked her numerous times about her HIV status and she swore she did not have it and in fact was tested a few weeks back and tested negative. She said she needed to be tested to obtain a work visa. She claims she is 100% certain she does not have HIV. I am extremely worried and want to know should I be tested??
Feel free to post your question in the HIV Current Topics forum.
http://www.medhelp.org/forums/HIV-Current-Topics/show/596
http://www.medhelp.org/forums/HIV-Current-Topics/show/596
I actually tried e-mailing you personally to discuss your article, but for some reason there was no code displayed when I was prompted to "enter code shown." I certainly did not desire to "hijack" any thread, haha. Jeez, you make it sound like I'm Hans Gruber taking over Nakatomi Plaza. Anyway, I would still like an answer to my follow-up interpretation. If this thread is not the appropriate place please direct me elsewhere. Maybe you could e-mail me or something? Thanks, buddy.
Hey, Joggen. I was hoping you would respond. So I think I get it - HIV risk of a particular exposure is measured against the HIV risk of other common exposures, rather than strictly numerical figures or compared to "everyday life" risks. So compared to unprotected oral sex, the risk of contracting HIV from unprotected vaginal sex would be very high. But it would still be less than the chance of getting struck by lightning or dying from gunfire, as your article points out. So, would you say it is more accurate to call unprotected vaginal sex a "high risk activity in relation to some other sexual activities," rather than simply calling it a "high risk activity in general." I mean, I would call tightrope walking, or even skydiving "high risk in general" - but I wouldn't term something one has a 99.995 % chance of avoiding as "high risk in general." Would you agree?
I understand that a risk is a risk regardless, and one should get tested after such an exposure. But perhaps this explains why the doctors on the forum don't even recommend testing after one unprotected exposure (other than just partaking in a regular yearly exam).
I understand that a risk is a risk regardless, and one should get tested after such an exposure. But perhaps this explains why the doctors on the forum don't even recommend testing after one unprotected exposure (other than just partaking in a regular yearly exam).
First of all, those statistics are strictly for North America. I have no idea what the HIV prevalence of sex workers in Dubai is, would not even attempt to speculate on it.
And second, if someone has had unprotected vaginal or anal sex with an unknown status partner, then they have had a risk, period. While in this situation it is unlikely that the OP would have contracted HIV, his HIV status is still uncertain as a result of the exposure, and he must test. Testing is the only way to know your status.
Whether a risk is 'low' or 'high' is all relative. Compared to sex inside of a mutually monogamous relationship, this exposure is relatively higher risk. But compared to anonymous, MSM anal sex, it is very low risk.
And second, if someone has had unprotected vaginal or anal sex with an unknown status partner, then they have had a risk, period. While in this situation it is unlikely that the OP would have contracted HIV, his HIV status is still uncertain as a result of the exposure, and he must test. Testing is the only way to know your status.
Whether a risk is 'low' or 'high' is all relative. Compared to sex inside of a mutually monogamous relationship, this exposure is relatively higher risk. But compared to anonymous, MSM anal sex, it is very low risk.
I'm having a hard time understanding why this is classified as a high risk. From what I understand from the doctors, one episode of unprotected insertive vaginal sex with a partner KNOWN to be infected carries a risk of 1 in 2000. And, according to Joggen's journal entry, the chances that a CSW even has HIV are 1 in 100, at most. So that means the chances of getting HIV from one episode of unprotected insertive vaginal sex with a partner of UNKNOWN status are .005 %. Put another way, there is a 99.995 % chance of not getting it. My question for all is simple: I don't get it. How is this considered a high risk, or even a risk at all?? I mean, I would imagine one has a greater chance of getting hit by a post office truck as soon as they walk out the door. Maybe someone can explain the definitions of low risk/high risk etc., and why so many people believe HIV is so easy to contract. If this comment is in the wrong forum I apologize. Please direct me to the appropriate one.
" I dont know what I was thinking at the time, must have lost my mind."
i think you were thinking with the brain between your legs instead of the one in your head.
in order to know one's status...testing is required.
i think you were thinking with the brain between your legs instead of the one in your head.
in order to know one's status...testing is required.
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