I was in a malaria-prone country two weeks ago when I feel ill. Given my many mosquito bites, I self-diagnosed myself as having malaria. I did not have flu-symptoms per se (as I have had the flu before and I did not feel the same), but I would feel very hot one moment, and then cold the next. I did not have painful urination. I attributed my swollen nodes to the frequency of sex i was having in the days leading up to my illness. My vagina felt swollen and I believed that, because I started drying up rather quickly during sex, I had vaginal cuts. I was taking ibuprofen as a result, but felt that it was not very helpful. So I applied Neosporin in my vagina (very stupid - I know). I also took medicine to treat the "malaria". My urine was a different color because of the treatment. As such, I thought my vaginal discharge changed color also because of the medicine. There was no blood in my urine, but while ill, I would see blood when I wiped. By the end of the malaria treatment, I felt much better. After the malaria treatment, I was still experiencing a sore feeling. I attributed discomfort during subsequent sex attempts to this soreness.
After I returned, I went to the doctor to make sure I no longer had malaria in my system. I also made an appointment at a clinic. I went to the clinic and upon physical exam, the dr was convinced I had herpes. She said that I had one ulceration...but that it may have been several that merged into one. She also proceeded to take swab samples as well as other std exams. Today I received a result of positive for HSV-1 in my genitals. I realize that it is possible for my partner to never have symptoms...but I am wondering how possible it is to get HSV-1 from genital-to-genital contact, as opposed to oral-to-genital contact? Can you have oral herpes and never have symptoms? I am very confused right now.