Basis for "no risk" statement when vaginal sex (protected)

[assg13]

Hi. I've been an avid reader of this and the STD community over the last couple of weeks since I had my regrettable encounter (protected hetero vaginal sex with a female CSW). Dr. H has told me this is "no risk for all practical purposes" and I've read countless other posts to the experts and in this community with guys in the same boat as me who have received the same advice.

Clearly, there's a great deal of consensus on this. Condoms work. They are effective protection against hiv when used consistently and correctly. I get it.

My question (it is coming!!!) is about the experts here like Teak. You guys provide pretty emphatic replies in these cases. The doctors do too but are more elaborate (for want of a better term). What's the basis for your advice? Is this from personal experience? For example, in your experience you haven't seen a case where someone tests positive after a single protected exposure?

Just wondering. Please don't take this the wrong way. I very much respect your advice and credentials but I'm curious. Thanks for all you do on here.

[nursegirl6572]

"For example, in your experience you haven't seen a case where someone tests positive after a single protected exposure?"

Never.

Our answers are based on the fact that we understand the physiology of HIV transmission and the anatomy of the virus.  Our answers are based on science.

[Vance2335]

Condoms are made to prevent HIV and STD's, so science tells us that it is not a risk.