I have received relatively good news this week. I got a negative 3rd generation EIA result after 10 weeks. non-reactive for all other STDs I have tested for so far, but syphilis which might keep showing reactive even after successful treatment.
But the not-so- good news is that I might be inmunocompromised, because my ID believes that the suspicious rash I developed at 7 weeks post possible exposure might have been induced by the varicela-zoster virus (Shingles) which is generally more common among inmunocompromised individuals affected by HIV, especially because I am only 24 and a second episode of such virus at my age is very uncommon, unless of course I might be inmunocompromised by either HIV or another reason.
My ID ordered testing for Herpes I&II, and cytomegalovirus today and she would want me to take a western blot in like a month or so based on the results from these exams, which will be like 14/15 weeks post exposure. She was great and very encouraging about my Negative HIV status but she seemed a bit worried about the rash and my sudden unexplained lower back pain at 10 weeks . Going through my blood work it becomes obvious that my immune system is reacting to something because of the high lymphocytes/monocytes/ red blood cells and the reducing levels of my palettes count (a month ago it was 215, now 192) above the range, but declining.
I am very hopeful about the results, but still so worried. Why I western blot so long after the "possible exposure" and why shingles so early in this "possible HIV infection"?