Hello
I was wondering if one of the experts could answer my question.
http://www.poz.com/articles/396_2286.shtml
That site suggests that performing fellatio on a HIV positive person has the same odds of acquiring HIV as being the insertive partner of anal sex.
Not that I am doubting your expertise, but you maintain that oral sex is no risk, but anal sex is high risk. So why do these seemingly reliable odds say that they have the same risk level? I
I know this is annoying but I'd appreciate an answer as this has thrown a spanner in the works of my current sanity awaiting to test at 3 months, still got 3 weeks to go.
Thanks and sorry again.