I understand most people will have seroconversion by 20 weeks so my question would fall to the other 1%. Here is my scenario:
Former partner 1st outbreak 18 months ago. Diagnosis HSV1 genital. No culture. Herpes Select HSV1 pos, HSV2 neg. Me: HSV1 pos, HSV2 neg Assume oral to genital transmission.
2nd outbreak 19 weeks ago. No culture, herpes select HSV1 pos, HSV2 neg (both of us with new partners).
3rd outbreak 1 week ago. Culture HSV2 positive, herpes select HSV2 negative, HSV 1 positive. Me: HSV2 negative, HSV 1 positive. No genital symptoms for me. However, current partner developed 2 lesions that were visually diagnosed by two different doctors "HSV" 16 weeks ago. His cultures 3 weeks apart both positive for staph instead. His Herpes Select HSV2 negative and HSV 1 positive. No further testing was done. Current partner for my ex has no genital symptoms but tested HSV2 positive and HSV1 negative. My question is, do I, or my current partner need retested for herpes via western blot? Is it possible that I am passing HSV2 to people and have no genital symptoms and no seroconversion via Herpes Select?