Here is the scenario...
I got a full STD panel in May 2009 with results stating I was positive for HSV 1+2 IgM, but not for HSV-1 type specific or HSV-2 type specific. With this devestating news, I waited 3 more months and got tested again. I tested the same, positive for IgM, not for IgG. So I was starting to doubt the tests... I had no symptoms and did some research about this IgM test. I had shingles (known as HSV 3) as a child and this virus has been known to cause false positive for HSV IgM tests. However, January 2010, I had came in contact with a HSV-1 positive person, unknowingly. Got tested, but came out the same positive IgM, negative, HSV 1+2 type specific. I did not get tested again til January 2011. I had an outbreak of some sort on my genitalia in early January 2011, had it cultured for HSV 1+2 type specific. The culture came back as HSV-2. However, I am certain there were no possible partners of who I would have contracted it from. I assumed it was a false positive as my HSV-3 shingles virus. Still paranoid, I got retested 3 months later in April 2011... Now my lab tests have changed. I am now positive for HSV 1+2 IgM and HSV-1 type specific... So was the culture wrong?? Is my blood test wrong?? Have I miracuously contracted HSV-2 on top of HSV-1 from January 2010?? I can't see how this adds up. How long does it normally take to convert IgM to IgG... Should it take a 1 year to build those antibodies?? I did take antivirals the first site of an outbreak...Got tested. But stopped taking the anti-virals for a few weeks, got tested, and now have IgG... I am going to get retested in 3 monts for the confirmation of HSV-2 type specific in the blood, or otherwise it was a possoble HSV-3 shingles outbreak, right? Or should I plan a "normal" 1 year conversion to receive a positive HSV-2 IgG test?
Someone please help me clarify things!
This discussion is related to Confusiion over other IgM Herpes posts