I disagree with my new neurologist about my MS diagnosis - he says RRMS and I believe SPMS makes more sense in light of my symptoms over time. I was diagnosed with MS in 2007 after being admitted from the ER because the urgent care doctor I had gone to see for what I thought was the flu, felt I was exhibiting possible signs of a stroke and he could not rule out stroke in that office. The neurologist never took a history from me and since it was an "emergency" the focus was on ruling out immediate dangers first. After 4 days in the hospital - CT scans, blood tests, MRI of brain,c-spine and spinal tap, I was diagnosed. I had an active c-spine lesion with Optic Neuritis and several (but no accurate count) active brain lesions and multiple black holes (T1 brain lesions) at time of diagnosis, 7 years ago. My spinal tap showed 3 O-bands. The Neuro on call at the ER diagnosed RRMS. Five years after diagnosis, a new neurologist ordered a Tspine mri for the first time. He also ordered Cspine and brain MRIs. Tspine MRI showed a non- active lesion at T3 and atrophy of the spinal cord from T3 to T5. The radiologist counted the brain lesions that time. She noted over 20 brain lesions but the lesions were never counted in my prior MRIs.I do not experience remitting and I never have from time of diagnosis. I had symptoms for over 20 years leading up to my diagnosis. I have had trace amount of new brain lesions since diagnosis (7 years) but no incidents of remitting-just a steady decline. My walking has deteriorated since diagnosis and I have severe fatigue that will lay me out flat for months at a time. I have severe cognitive issues and have lost 30 pts from my IQ-this was measured in neuro-psych testing every 2 years from 2007 to 2013. Does this really sound like RRMS?