Trichomonas

[confusedandmisled]

I recently had a routine Pap smear by a gynocologist. This was my first visit to this specific gynecologist (actually she is a nurse practitioner--CCNA). I received a call about 2 weeks later saying the Pap smear was normal but the Pap detected Trichomonas vaginalis, although they do not automatically test for this infection. I have researched many websites and asked many medical professionals for information on the origins of T. vaginalis and whether it can be contracted any other way aside from sexual intercourse or vulva-to-vulva contact. As a nursing student I also consulted my Tabers medical dictionary for the exact definition of T. vaginalis. This was the definition of Trichomonas: Genus of flagellate parasitic protozoa. There are three forms of Trichomonas--a T. hominis found in the large intestines; T. tenax found in the mouth; and, finally, T. vaginalis, a species found in the vagina that produces discharge. T. vaginalis is fairly common in women, especially during pregnancy or following vaginal surgery. It is sometimes found in the male urethra and may be transmitted through sexual intercourse. Now, this definition sounds to me like a species that can grow in women, unwarrented by any sexual intercourse or contact, but can be transmitted sexually once it becomes prevalent in the woman. This definition does not sound like this species is specifically a sexually transmitted infection, but can be transmitted sexually. Does any professional who may read this have a take on this definition and, if so, can they please help? I have been married for 9 years and have not had sexual contact with anyone other than my husband for 10 or more years. He profusely denies any sexual contact with anyone for about the same amount of time as me. When we met we both had been celilbate for at least a year. Although I am confused as to whether my husband stepped outside my marriage, and he appears confused,. as well. During our research we have begun to conclude that T. vaginalis can be contracted by some other means other than sexual intercourse or vulva-to-vulva contact. Studies have shown virgins to have contracted T. vaginalis with claims of never having been sexually assaulted by anyone. Can someone, anyone who is a professional (i.e. MD, Nurse Practitioner, Gynecologist, etc.). Thank you in advance for your help and concern.
Signed confusedandmisled!

[gracefromHHP]

this is the patient to patient forum. I am not here as a medical  provider. If you want, you can pay to post on the std experts forum.

as I said, it can be transmitted through non-sexual means but rarely is.  The false positive issues make it hard to know with virgins if they truly have trich or not too.

Tabers covers it all broadly and even though everyone who goes to nursing school is forced to buy one for some stupid reason, it's not a great resource .  if it had a listing for buses, it would have to say that sometimes you get run over by one.

[confusedandmisled]

I see you respond here often. What is your medical title and how do you discount what my medical dictionary (Taber's Cyclopedic Medical Dictionary, 21st ed.) said? By the way, he did not test neg. or pos. because when we told the doctor what we wanted, he gave every other test besides the one we asked for, the T. vaginalis test. Also, how do you explain virgins testing positive for T. vaginalis. There is research about it and how T. vaginalis can live in a wet place outside the body for about three hours. Where did you get your information that it is almost exclusively through sexual intercourse?
Signed confusedandmisled

[gracefromHHP]

trich is almost exclusively transmitted through sexual contact.  It can be transmitted non-sexually but rarely is.

There are also false positive issues. If your hubby tests negative with newer testing for trich, odds are you have a false positive. A terrific prior post on this topic might help you and your provider both - http://www.medhelp.org/posts/STDs/Trichomoniasis/show/1119263

grace