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My doctor did not test directly for chlamydia, even though I asked him to.  I did have a chlamydia test done almost 8 months ago which was negative.  The Urologist tested my urine using microscopic, would this show some sort of infection if I had chlamydia.  Why would he not test for chlamydia if I asked him to?  I heard people get chlamydia in there eyes from hand to genital to eye contact or even from towels, why would it not transfer from hand to penis if she touched herself.
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736575 tn?1288902558
Chlamydia can be detected through urine testing.  But lots of things are tested through the urine.  You should ask your doctor what and why you were tested for.  You are entitled to know what you were seen for. And what they test you for as well.
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Avatar universal
What about a urine culture?  Would this detect chlamydia?
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Avatar universal
What about a urine culture?  Would this detect chlamydia?
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736575 tn?1288902558
It is because your eye is and extremely sensitive organ protected by very thin membranes.  In order for you to contract chlamydia from her to you by hand, she would have to have had a significant amount of fluid from her vagina on her hand, then immediately touch the opening to your urethra. A decemt amount of fluid needs to pass your urethra membranes.  That is why we say "prolonged" sex and not very brief (not less than several minutes) sex will transfer chlamydia.

This is my theory based on my basic knowledge on the human anatomy. If I am wrong, someone will come by and correct me.  If that happens, I apologize for the error now. But I am sure of this: the eyes are the most vulnerable part of our bodies
and that is why an infection would set in easily if contracted or passed there.
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