Greetings,
Here's the scenario:
I've been in a monogamous relationship with my wife for 10 years but 9 days ago had a moment of weakness and received unprotected oral sex from a sex worker. Before receiving fellatio, we had protected vaginal sex for about 5 minutes. I immediately regretted my decision and made an appointment with my doctor. I was tested 5 days after exposure for syphilis, gonorrhea, and chlamydia, all of which came back negative. My doctor said that my risk of contracting HIV was extremely low and that it was my call as to whether to have that test done in a few months. I plan on doing that, as well as being tested for Herpes just to ease my mind. The sex worker did not have any sores on her mouth or vagina, but did have something that looked like psoriasis on her knees and lower back. She stated that she is always cautious (whatever that means).
My questions are as follows:
1) Should I go back and get tested for syphilis, gonorrhea, and chlamydia again in a few weeks or is that unnecessary given that I already tested negative?
2) Given that we did have brief protected vaginal sex (and, by the way, the condom was completely intact), is it possible for me to have contracted HIV?
3) Since the sex worker did not have any noticeable sores, what is the likelihood of me contracting Herpes?
4) Since I've already been tested, would it still be unwise to have unprotected sex with my wife? (I know bounds of moral judgments are going to come out here. But just know that my wife had told me that if I wanted to "sew my wild oats" then go do so but be careful and don't talk about it. I'm done doing that and ready to be completely monogamous again.)
Thanks!