Hey, y'all.
I know that there are knowledgeable people here, so I'm sure that you folks can help me out.
On July 17th, I bottomed for a man who wore a condom. When we were finished, he didn't stick around (not that I expected him to, since we were in a bathhouse), leaving the room quickly, so I didn't get a chance to perform my usual visual inspection of the condom to make sure that all was well. You know--that it didn't break or anything like that. I wasn't overly concerned about this, though. (He also said that hadn't ejaculated, but heck, men say a lot of things.)
A couple of weeks later, I began to develop symptoms--pain all over my body, fatigue (well, more fatigue than I'm used to, given my grueling schedule), and minor sore throat (if it's relevant, I do smoke). These symptoms lasted for approximately a week and a half. There was no rash, fever, or, as far as I could tell, swollen lymph nodes. As you might imagine, I thought back to my not having a chance to inspect the dude's condom, and I became concerned that I might be experiencing seroconversion. (Oh, in case this is relevant, I have type 2 diabetes.)
I didn't want to wait for the three-month window period before being tested, so I got tested at 29 days post-incident (at my university's health center; they drew blood and ran the test in their lab). The test came back non-reactive.
The counselor told me that I am more than likely negative, but that if I still felt anxious, he could arrrange for me to have a PCR test. I agreed to see how I felt after a few days and then to let him know.
My question to you out there: At 29 days out, how likely is it that a non-reactive result is true and accurate? I mean, should I take the PCR test, or do you think that I'm fine and should wait out the rest of the window period?
I would appreciate any information that you can give me. Thank you very much.