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CIDP versus CMT

CIDP versus CMT

I have progressive weakness in both ankles and have had several tests the last of which was a sural nerve biopsy which showed loss of large and small myelinated axons, degenerating axons, regeneration clusters, scattered atrophic axons, several thinly myelinated axons and rare poorly formed onion bulb.  A focus of sparse perivascular chronic inflammation is noted and the endomurial blood vessels have thickened walls which is consistent with axonal and demyelinating neuropathy.  Which is this CMT or CIDP????  I need help as to which direction to go to get a definitive diagnosis as my doctor is stumped.  I had this 8 years ago which my legs felt funny like stumps then spontaneously went away.  About three months ago started again but this time is progressive and is getting worse with no ankle reflexes, weakness and some sensory problems and also burning but all in feet just below knees.  I had and EMG/NCV which showed slowed conduction and prolonged F waves consistent with demyelination and the NCV showed problem in the L2-L5 area with axonal component.  I also had an MRI of the lower spine and pelvis which showed no compression or problem in that area.  I had an MRI of the brain which showed nonspecific chronic white matter t2 signal changes in the left frontal parietal region.  My doctor is stumped and does not know if this is genetic or immune.  I am needing some help to try and get a definitive diagnosis so if this is a treatable disease I can be started sooner rather than later on treatment.  Any help would be greatly appreciated even a referral to a specific kind of doctor in neurology that is more proficient in this area.  My doctor stated he doesn't believe it is CIDP as I have axonal loss and still have knee reflexes and according to my readings these can also be a component of CIDP.  Please help.
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